For fixed $N$ you have an $N\times N$ matrix $A$. Flip the matrix upside down and index the rows and columns by $0,\ldots,N-1$ instead of $1,\ldots,N$ to get $B$, defined by
$$B(i,j)=A(N-i,j+1)$$
for $0\le i,j<N$. Taking $N=5$ as an example, $A$ is given by the following array:
$$\begin{array}{c|cc}
i\backslash j:&1&2&3&4&5\\ \hline
1&1&5&15&35&70\\
2&1&4&10&20&35\\
3&1&3&6&10&15\\
4&1&2&3&4&5\\
5&1&1&1&1&1\\
\end{array}$$
And $B$ is:
$$\begin{array}{c|cc}
i\backslash j:&0&1&2&3&4\\ \hline
0&1&1&1&1&1\\
1&1&2&3&4&5\\
2&1&3&6&10&15\\
3&1&4&10&20&35\\
4&1&5&15&35&70\\
\end{array}$$
This is clearly just part of Pascal’s triangle in one of its rectangular forms: $B(i,j)=\binom{i+j}j$. Since $A(i,j)=B(N-i,j-1)$ for $1\le i,j\le N$, we conjecture that
$$A(i,j)=\binom{N-i+j-1}{j-1}\tag{1}$$
for $1\le i,j\le N$. You can easily verify that $(1)$ satisfies the boundary conditions on $A$, and the recurrence for $A$ is just Pascal’s recurrence in the form
$$\binom{N-i+j-1}{j-1}=\binom{N-i+j-2}{j-2}+\binom{N-i+j-2}{j-1}\;,$$
so $(1)$ is correct.