My Question:
Derive a new iteration method for solving $f(x)=0$ by solving the quadratic equation $$f(x_k)+f'(x_k)(x-x_k)+\frac{1}{2}f''(x_k)(x-x_k)^2=0$$ Complete your algorithm by specifying which root to choose, and prove cubic convergence under appropriate assumptions on $f,x$ and the starting value $x_0$.
My thoughts:
Since you are solving the equation to find a new technique, let's say the roots of the equation is the new technique. Then I can get that, $$f(x_k) +f'(x_k)(x_{k+1}-x_k)+\frac{1}{2}f''(x_k)(x_{k+1}-x_k)^2 = 0$$ If that's the case, I can subtract it from the third level of taylor expansion. $$f(x_k) + f'(x_k) * (x-x_k)+\frac{1}{2}f^{\prime\prime}(x_k) (x-x_k)^2+\frac{1}{6}f'''(x_k)(x-x_k)^3=0$$ After I did the subtraction, I think I am pretty close, but now the issue becomes I have to prove that
$$\frac{f''(x_k)(x-x_{k+1})(x-2x_k+x_{k+1})}{2f'(x_k)(x-x_{k+1})^3}$$ is going to converge to some constant as $k \to \infty$? But I don't think that's gonna happen because if I use L'hospital's rule multiple times, since the numerators has higher order, if $x_k$ converges to $x$, the equation is likely to become infinity.
Edit: I really don't know how to start with this, if I'm even understanding this question correctly.