First, I believe there are at least two ways to prove this result. One, constructively, by showing that $\partial A$ contains all limit points. The other, by contradiction, is to suppose that $\partial A$ is open. I chose this direction because it seemed easier to me.
So, I have: Suppose $\partial A$ is open. That is, $\forall x \in \partial A$, $\exists \epsilon > 0$, s.t: $B_\epsilon (x) \subset \partial A$. Now, to show the contradiction, I want to show that if $y \in B_\epsilon (x)$, then $y \notin \partial A$. This is where I am having trouble. For instance, I know that if $y \in B_\epsilon (x)$, then $\parallel x - y \parallel < \epsilon$. I want to use the definition of $\partial A$ := {$x \in R^d | \forall \epsilon > 0, B_\epsilon (x)$ contains points in $A$ and $A^c$}, but I can't see where to go from here. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.
Edit: Attempt 2:
Let $x \in R^d$. Consider $B_{1/n} (x) \in \partial A$. See that $B_{1/n} (x) \longrightarrow x$ as $n \longrightarrow \infty$ $\Longrightarrow$ $x \in \partial A$. Thus, $\partial A$ contains all limit points and so it is a closed set.
I feel like this may not be right but I think I am close, any input is appreciated.Pls help so I don't fail this class and have to repeat for a third time