Let $\lVert\cdot\lVert$ be any norm on the vector space $E$ and let $\rho\left(\sum^n_{j=1}\lambda_je_j\right)=\left(\sum^n_{j=1}|\lambda_j|^2\right)^{1/2}$ where $(e_j)$ is a basis for $E$.
Now Young argues that $f(\lambda_1,\ldots,\lambda_n)=\left\lVert\sum^n_{j=1} \lambda_j e_j\right\lVert$ reaches its infimum (it is unclear whether this is a global og local infimun) $m\geq 0$ on the compact set $\left\{ (\lambda_1, \ldots,\lambda_n) \,|\, \sum^n_{j=1}|\lambda_j|^2=1 \right\}$
At the end of the proof, Young argues that whenever $\rho(x)=1$ then $\lVert x\lVert\geq m>0$, and this implies "by homogeneity" that $\lVert x\lVert \geq m\rho(x)$, for all $x\in E$. Can someone explain this? I find it mystifying.
Thanks in advance!
Let $x\in E$ and $x\neq 0$, then $\rho(\frac x{\rho(x)})=1$ and $|\frac x{\rho(x)}|≥m$, which is the infimum of the norm on the set for which $\rho(x)=1$. Since $|\cdot|$ is also homogenous, this imples $|x|≥m,\rho(x)$.
– s.harp Feb 17 '16 at 15:55