My professor worked this solution in class, but I am not sure he is right. I did it on my own if someone could take a look at my work. I am a little confused.
$$\int_1^2 \frac{\ln(x)}{x} \;dx$$
So I approached this problem with $U$ Substitution. So $u= \ln(x)$ which means $\;du = \frac{1}{x} \;dx$
Next
I find the new bounds for the integral since I used $U$ Substitution. So, instead of the lower limit being $1$, it would be $\ln(1)$, and instead of the upper limit being $2$ it would be $\ln(2)$.
$$1 = \ln(1)$$
$$2 = \ln(2)$$
For new definite integral limits, I simplified the integral to $u \;du$ since I substituted in $\;du = \frac{1}{x} \;dx$, integrating $u \;du$ I get
$$\frac{u^2}{2}.$$
Which substituting my original $u$ back in I get $$\frac{\ln(x)^2}{2}.$$
So my big question is: now that I have this equation, to do $f(b) - f(a)$ would I just plug in the lower and upper bounds so it would look something like
$$\frac{\ln(\ln(2))^2 }{2} - \frac{\ln(\ln(1))^2}{2}$$