First note that your conjecture is equivalent to
$$\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n}i\binom{i}j(-1)^i=0\;.\tag{1}$$
Now
$$\binom{n}i\binom{i}j=\binom{n}j\binom{n-j}{i-j}\;,$$
so $(1)$ can be rewritten as
$$0=\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n}j\binom{n-j}{i-j}(-1)^i=\binom{n}j\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n-j}{i-j}(-1)^i\;,$$
which is equivalent to
$$\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n-j}{i-j}(-1)^i=0\;.\tag{2}$$
Letting $k=i-j$, we can rewrite $(2)$ as
$$\sum_{k=0}^{n-j}\binom{n-j}k(-1)^{k+j}=0\;,$$
which, after multiplication by $(-1)^j$, becomes
$$\sum_{k=0}^{n-j}\binom{n-j}k(-1)^k=0\;.$$
This is just a special case of the binomial theorem, specifically, for $(-1+1)^{n-j}$, which we know is $0$ unless $n=j$, in which case it’s $1$. Thus, your conjecture is true provided that $n>j$.