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Let $n$ be a positive integer and fix a non-negative integer $j\le n-1$. Is it true that $$ \sum_{i=j}^{n-1}\binom{n}{i}\binom{i}{j}(-1)^i=\binom{n}{j}(-1)^{n-1} $$ or, equivalently, $$ \sum_{i=0}^{n-1-j}\binom{n}{i+j}\binom{i+j}{j}(-1)^i=\binom{n}{j}(-1)^{n+j+1}\,\,\,? $$

[This is only a conjecture]

1 Answers1

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First note that your conjecture is equivalent to

$$\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n}i\binom{i}j(-1)^i=0\;.\tag{1}$$

Now

$$\binom{n}i\binom{i}j=\binom{n}j\binom{n-j}{i-j}\;,$$

so $(1)$ can be rewritten as

$$0=\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n}j\binom{n-j}{i-j}(-1)^i=\binom{n}j\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n-j}{i-j}(-1)^i\;,$$

which is equivalent to

$$\sum_{i=j}^n\binom{n-j}{i-j}(-1)^i=0\;.\tag{2}$$

Letting $k=i-j$, we can rewrite $(2)$ as

$$\sum_{k=0}^{n-j}\binom{n-j}k(-1)^{k+j}=0\;,$$

which, after multiplication by $(-1)^j$, becomes

$$\sum_{k=0}^{n-j}\binom{n-j}k(-1)^k=0\;.$$

This is just a special case of the binomial theorem, specifically, for $(-1+1)^{n-j}$, which we know is $0$ unless $n=j$, in which case it’s $1$. Thus, your conjecture is true provided that $n>j$.

Brian M. Scott
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