Or are they equal? If they aren't, when one you use one and not the other?
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1For all practical purposes, they are equal. – Clarinetist Mar 03 '16 at 14:56
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1They are obviously equal. – Mar 03 '16 at 14:57
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Why would you think they should not be the same? Have you got a particular definition that makes it non-obvious? What do you know of signed arithmetic? – Mar 03 '16 at 14:58
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They are equal, but brackets do matter:$-(1000)^2=-1000000$ but $(-1000)^2=1000000$ – Wouter Mar 03 '16 at 15:18
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They are different expressions that evaluate to the same thing. – MartianInvader Mar 03 '16 at 22:35
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They are equal. You could choose to see $-(1000)$ as $-1 \times 1000$, and $(-1000)$ as $1 \times -1000$. But they both turn out to be $-1000$.
Mr. Brooks
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