Are the following two propositions logically equivalent?
$p \rightarrow (\neg q \land r)$
and
$\neg p \lor \neg(r \rightarrow q) $
For this one, I'm pretty sure that they are not equivalent because of DeMorgan laws, but I'm not sure how to prove it.
Also, is the following proposition a tautology?
$((p \rightarrow \neg q) \land q)\rightarrow \neg p)$
I think this is true, based on lecture notes I have and an example in the textbook, but I don't know how the logic works.
Thanks in advance.