I saw this integral in my textbook. Is this incorrect? Shouldn't it be $-\lambda e^{-\lambda s}$ since the integral of $e^{-\lambda s}$ is $-\frac{1}{\lambda}e^{-\lambda s}$
\begin{align*} f_S(s) &=\lambda^2\int_0^se^{-\lambda s}\,dt\\ &=\lambda^2se^{-\lambda s} \end{align*}