First of all, as far as I can see (if I haven't miscalculated as well ^^), $L_3$ should be $$L_3 = \frac{x(x+2)(x-1)}{(4-(-2)) \cdot 4 \cdot (4-1)} = \frac{x(x+2)(x-1)}{72}$$
Now to the question why they form a basis. The Lagrange polynomials are defined in such a way that you have $$L_j(x_i) = \delta_{ij}, i,j=0,\dots,3$$ where $\delta_{ij}$ is the Kronecker delta. We know that $\dim(\Pi_3) = 4$ (because $\{1,x,x^2,\dots,x^3\}$ is a basis). Thus it suffices to show that $L_0, \dots, L_3$ are linearly independent. So let $\lambda_0, \dots, \lambda_3$ so that $$\phi := \sum_{j=0}^{3}{\lambda_j L_j} = 0$$
We now need to show that $\lambda_j = 0\ \ \ \forall j \in \{0,\dots,3\}$. But this follows easily from $$0 = \phi(x_i) = \sum_{j=0}^{3}{\lambda_j L_j}(x_i) = \sum_{j=0}^{3}{\lambda_{j}\delta_{ij}} = \lambda_i$$