If $x > y$, can you prove $x \ \log y > y \log x$, where $x \ge 1$ and $y \ge 1$. I encountered this problem in a paper I read and somehow cannot prove it.
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This result does not hold, as a plot of $(\log x)/x$ shows. – Did Mar 12 '16 at 22:54
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In questions like this, separate the variables - x on one side, y on the other - and show that the resulting function is monotonic - usually by differentiating. – A.S. Mar 12 '16 at 22:54
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Counterexample: $x=3$ and $y=2$. – Intelligenti pauca Mar 12 '16 at 22:55
2 Answers
Consider the function $$ f(x)=\frac{\log x}{x} $$ defined for $x\ge1$. Note that $f(1)=0$. Also $$ f'(x)=\frac{1-\log x}{x^2} $$ So the function has a maximum at $e$ and the claim is false. If you assume $e\le y<x$, then, as $f$ is decreasing on $[e,\infty)$, you have $$ f(y)>f(x) $$ that is, $$ \frac{\log y}{y}>\frac{\log x}{x} $$ that becomes $$ x\log y>y\log x $$
Note that, instead, if $1\le y<x\le e$, you have $$ f(y)<f(x) $$ because $f$ is increasing on $[1,e]$. This translates to $$ x\log y<y\log x $$
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Define
$$f(x)=\frac{\log x}x\implies f'(x)=\frac{1-\log x}{x^2}>0\iff \log x<1\iff 0<x<e$$
Thus, for $\;x>e\;$ we get that $\;f'(x)<0\implies f(x)\;$ monotonic descending and then
$$\forall\,x>y>e\;,\;\;f(x)<f(y)\iff y\log x<x\log y$$
Thus, not for all $\;x,y\ge1\;$ .
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