$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{1}{k+3}-\frac{1}{k+4}\right)$$
It is a telescopic series , so I write it as:
$a_n=\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{k+4}$ taking the limit $\lim_{k\to \infty}\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{k+4}=\frac{1}{4}$
Is it legit?
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{1}{k+3}-\frac{1}{k+4}\right)$$
It is a telescopic series , so I write it as:
$a_n=\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{k+4}$ taking the limit $\lim_{k\to \infty}\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{k+4}=\frac{1}{4}$
Is it legit?
Yes, you are correct. The sum telescopes, and only the first term $1/4$, survives in the limit.
Aside: I might add that your notation $a_k$ for the $k$th partial sum is an interesting notational choice, as so frequently by convention we think of the original sum as $\sum a_n$. Of course, this is merely convention. But when I teach telescoping series to my students, I usually use the notation $\Sigma_k$ or $S_k$ for the $k$th partial sum.