Given , $X= l_p (p\geq 1)$ , and let $d(x,y) = ( \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} |x_k - y_k |^{p})^{\frac{1}{p}}$ where $x= \{x_k\}_{k\geq 1}$ and $y= \{y_k\}_{k\geq 1}$ are in $l_p$. Let $\{x^{(n)}\}_{n \geq 1}=\{\{x_k ^{(n)}\}_{k\geq 1}\}_{n \geq 1}$ be a sequence in $X$ that converges to $x$. We need to prove that this implies component wise convergence holds true in this case , but vice-versa is not true.
Using the convergence condition , component wise convergence can be established. Coming to the converse part. We let $ x_k ^{(n)} \to x_k$ for each $k$.
Now we let $x_k ^{(n)} = x_k + \delta _{kn}$ where , $\delta _{kn} = 0 $ for $k \neq n$ and $\delta _{kn} = 1 $ for $k = n$.
So we can see , $| x_k ^{(n)} - x_k| = \delta_{kn} = 0 $ for n>k.
And I don't know what happens in the next step. It says :
Consequently , $ x_k ^{(n)} \to x_k$ for each $k$ , however ,
$ d(x^{(n)} , x) = ( \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} |x_k ^{(n)} - x_k |^{p})^{\frac{1}{p}} = 1$ for all $n$. Can anyone explain me this ? How this comes out to be 1 ?