the significance of being homogeneous is that the origin( zero function witch is $y(x)=0$) is in the space formed by solutions of ODE witch is a property of Vector Spaces.
also the solution of ODE is as follow:
$$\frac{dy}{dx} + p(x)y = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{dy}{y}=-p(x)dx \Rightarrow lny=-\int p(x)dx +Constant \Rightarrow y=Ae^{-\int p(x)dx}$$
what I get from Problem is that we must show the solution is a Vector Subspace on Real Numbers which mean Scalars come from $\mathbb R$.
1- ODE is Homogeneous so zero vector is in solution space apparently.
2-if $y_1=A_1e^{-\int p(x)dx}$ and $y_2=A_2e^{-\int p(x)dx}$ and $c$ is a scalar(a real number in this case) then $y_1+cy_2=(A_1+cA_2)e^{-\int p(x)dx}$ is a solution too. so we are dealing with a vector subspace of the space of continuous functions on $\mathbb R$.
Also dimension of the subspace is one because the only member of the set $\{e^{-\int p(x)dx} \} $ spans the whole space.