Let $(X, \mathcal T)$ be a $T_1$-space. Now for every $x \in X$, we know that $\{x \}$ is closed in $X$, that is $X \setminus \{x\}$ is open. Consider any subset $S \subseteq X$.
We have that $\displaystyle S = \bigcup_{x \in S} \{x\}$ is closed, since the finite union of closed sets is closed. Now $$X\setminus S = X\setminus \left(\bigcup_{x \in A} \{x\} \right) = \bigcap_{x \in S} \left(X \setminus \{x\}\right),$$ which is the intersection of open sets. That is, $S$ is saturated.
Is this correct? I am having serious doubts about the fact that $S$ is closed, since I'm not too sure $\displaystyle \bigcup_{x \in S} \{x \}$ is in fact closed (since I don't really know that $S$ is finite). Is there any way around this?