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Suppose $0 < f(x) < x^2, \ \forall x$. Prove that $f$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(x)=0$.

I don't even know how to start with the first one. For the second question, I'm guessing we can use squeeze theorem to show that the limit must also go to $0$ as the limit of the bounds goes to 0.

Much appreciated!

Rainroad
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2 Answers2

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I take it you mean $0 \leq f(x)$. It is easy to see that $f(0) = 0$.

For $h\neq 0$, we have $0 \leq f(h) \leq h^2$.

If $$h>0 \Longrightarrow 0 \leq \frac{f(h)}{h} \leq h$$ $$h<0 \Longrightarrow h \leq \frac{f(h)}{h} \leq 0$$

Observe that these are the difference quotients for the three functions at $x=0$. Now squeeze.

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Once we have $ \ f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \ $ such that $ \ 0 \leq f(x) \leq x^2$, $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}$, is straightforward that $ \ f(0)=0$. Then, $\forall t \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}$, we have that $$\displaystyle 0 \leq \frac{f(t)}{t} \leq \frac{t^2}{t} = t$$ By the Sandwich theorem, we conclude that $$\displaystyle f'(0) = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(0+t) - f(0)}{t} = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(t)}{t} = 0$$

Gustavo
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