Suppose $0 < f(x) < x^2, \ \forall x$. Prove that $f$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(x)=0$.
I don't even know how to start with the first one. For the second question, I'm guessing we can use squeeze theorem to show that the limit must also go to $0$ as the limit of the bounds goes to 0.
Much appreciated!
It ends up being something like $$g(h) = \begin{cases} h,&\text{if }h\in\Bbb Q\ 0,&\text{if }h\in\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q;. \end{cases}$$
And you take the limit as $h \to 0$.
– MathematicsStudent1122 Mar 24 '16 at 05:03