This might look a bit silly but I was trying to find if there is specific symbol/formalization in logic to describe "$A$ generalizes $B$". At first I though simply about using implication, because it seems to just mean that $A \Rightarrow B$. For example
$a^p \equiv a \pmod p \Rightarrow 2^3 \equiv 2 \pmod 3$
In this case it is clear that left side is generalization of the right side. But then consider following implication:
There are infinitely many primes of form $4n+1$ $\Rightarrow$ There are infinitely many primes
Here left side of the implication does not seem to be generalization of the right side. Actually left side looks like more specific case.
Is this just intuition failure and both cases are in fact generalizations? Or is there some formal distinction between "generalizes" and "implies" relations? Also if not, why would we even use two different words for something if the semantics is same?