2

Prove that the distance from the mean to the inflection points is one standard deviation.

So I know in order to find critical points one must find the second derivative and set it equal to 0. However I'm confused how to approach this proof. Step by step explanation please!

Lil
  • 2,529
  • You are talking here about normal distribution, right? You should add that to your question. – drhab Mar 29 '16 at 15:00

2 Answers2

3

Start by focusing on the standard normal distribution.

$\phi\left(x\right):=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^{2}}\tag1$

$\phi'\left(x\right)=\phi\left(x\right)\left(-x\right)\tag2$

$\phi''\left(x\right)=\phi'\left(x\right)\left(-x\right)+\phi\left(x\right)\left(-1\right)=\phi\left(x\right)\left(x^{2}-1\right)\tag3$

To achieve (2) we apply the chain rule. To achieve (3) we apply the product rule and former result (2).

If $f\left(x\right):=\frac{1}{\sigma}\phi\left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)$ then $$f''\left(x\right)=0\iff\phi''\left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)=0\iff\left(\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\right)^{2}=1\iff x=\mu \pm \sigma$$


Personal note: I don't like parameters and always try to avoid them as much as possible.

drhab
  • 151,093
2

$$f(x)=\frac 1{\sigma \sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}$$

To simplify things, let $k=\frac 1{\sigma \sqrt{2\pi}}$

$$f'(x)=k\frac{de^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}}{d(-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2})}*\frac{d(-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2})}{dx} $$

We performed chain rule in the above differentiation, by firstly treating the power of $e$ as a whole variable, and differentiate $e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}$ to give itself (because the derivative of $e^{f(x)}$ with respect to $f(x)$ is just itself). Then we multiply it with the derivative of the quadratic function with respect to $x$. So we will get

$$f'(x)= k\frac{-2(x-\mu)}{2\sigma^2}e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}$$

Now the second derivative of the function is, $$f''(x)=\frac{-1}{\sigma^3 \sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} +\frac{(\mu-x)^2}{\sigma^5 \sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} $$

Can you try differentiating it using chain rule, like what I did above, and product rule?

After that, it is easy to solve:

$f''(x)=0$ iff

$$(\mu -x)^2 -\sigma^2=0$$

$$x=\mu \pm \sigma$$

lEm
  • 5,477
  • 1
    If it's not too much trouble can you go over the derivative step by step. For the first derivative did you use chain rule? I'm a little rusty with my derivatives.. – Lil Mar 29 '16 at 14:43
  • @Lil I've updated my answer – lEm Mar 29 '16 at 14:56