My question is regarding the expression below, where $\varepsilon\ll1$. $$\left(\frac{1}{\varepsilon}\right)^{\cfrac{1}{1-\varepsilon}}$$ Is it possible to express this in the form $$\left(\frac{1}{\varepsilon}\right)^{\cfrac{1}{1-\varepsilon}} = a_0+a_1\varepsilon+a_2\varepsilon^2...$$
Where I am guessing $a_0=\frac{1}{\varepsilon}$ for example. I'm a bit rusty on my asymptotics so i'm sorry if this is a silly question, just need my mind jogged with some input.
Many thanks in advance.
EDIT: My idea, could we say
$$\left(\frac{1}{\varepsilon}\right)^{\cfrac{1}{1-\varepsilon}} = \varepsilon^{\cfrac{1}{\varepsilon-1}} = \left[ 1+(\varepsilon-1) \right]^{\cfrac{1}{\varepsilon-1}} $$ Therefore as $|\varepsilon-1|=|1-\varepsilon|<1$ we may expand
$$\left(\frac{1}{\varepsilon}\right)^{\cfrac{1}{1-\varepsilon}} \simeq 1+\cfrac{1}{\varepsilon-1}(\varepsilon-1)+ \cfrac{1}{\varepsilon-1}\frac{(\varepsilon-1)^2}{2} $$ This doesn't look that promising.