How to prove/disprove that (a mod p) mod q = (a mod q)mod p ?
Supposing $p < q$, we have 3 situations:
$a{\space}{\epsilon}{\space}[0, p)$, obviously the statement is true for this case
$a{\space}{\epsilon}{\space}[p, q)$
$a{\space}mod{\space}p{\space}mod{\space}q=(a-a/p)mod{\space}q=a{\space}mod{\space}q-a/p{\space}mod{\space}mod{\space}q=a-a/p$
and
$a{\space}mod{\space}q{\space}mod{\space}p=a{\space}mod{\space}p=a-a/p$
- and $a > q$ which reduces to first two situations.
Taking these three situation I have found that the statement is true. I am missing something ?