0

$A$$\rightarrow$$(B$ $\vee$ $C$ ) , $B$ $\rightarrow$ $C$ $\vDash$ $A$ $\rightarrow$ $D$

I think it's wrong but I have no idea how to prove.

Orange
  • 29

2 Answers2

1

It is provable that $A \to ( B \vee C ) ~,~ B \to C ~\vDash~ A \to \color{red}C$

$$\begin{array}{|l|l:l|}\hline 1 & A\to (B\vee C) & \textsf{Premise} \\ 2 & B\to C & \textsf{Premise} \\ \hdashline 3 & \quad \neg C & \textsf{Assume} \\ 4 & \quad \neg B & 2,3,\to\textsf{Elim (MP)} \\ 5 & \quad \neg(B\vee C) & 3,4,\wedge\textsf{Intro},\textsf{deMorgan's} \\ 6 & \quad \neg A & 1,5,\to\textsf{Elim (MP)} \\ \hline 7 & A\to C & 3,6,\to\textsf{Intro} \\ \hline \end{array}$$

However, those premises do not entail $A\to D$.

Graham Kemp
  • 129,094
  • thanks for your reply, but really it's $A$ $\rightarrow$ $D$ . by the truth table, when A=true,B=true,C=true,D=false, left-hand is true but right-hand is false. then this one is false. (a counter example) is this right solution? – Orange Apr 04 '16 at 12:26
0

$A\implies D$ is false when $A$ is true and $D$ false. The other implications will be true when $C$ be true.