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This great answer at MathOverflow, https://mathoverflow.net/a/29488/8784, shows that the set of permutations of $\mathbb N$ is uncountable. However, I did not grasp the fact that he uses: any conditionally convergent series [and that such exists] can be rearranged to converge to any given real number $x$ proves that there is an injection $P$ from the reals to the permutations of $\mathbb N$

How did he arrive at this fact? Is there a known proof?

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As discussed in the comments, once you know that any conditionally convergent series can be rearranged to yield any desired real number, we immediately get an injection of $\mathbb R$ into the permutations on $\mathbb N$. To be somewhat explicit about it, pick a conditionally convergent series, such as $\sum (-1)^n\frac 1n$. Then, given $\alpha \in \mathbb R$ we choose a permutation of that sequence which converges to $\alpha$.

Technical note: as the above suggests, there are some issues concerning the Axiom of Choice here. More discussion of this point can be found, e.g., here

lulu
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  • I was going to mention that this needed AC - decided not to mention that when I realized it doesn't! Given $\alpha\in\Bbb R$ and our conditionally convergent series there's an explicit construction of a rearrangement that converges to $\alpha$. – David C. Ullrich Apr 07 '16 at 17:05
  • @DavidC.Ullrich True. Though I think you need AC if you want to prove that the permutations are bijective with $2^{\mathbb N}$. Mind you, I'm not sure I've got that right. – lulu Apr 07 '16 at 17:10