Define $a_n$ as:
$$ a_n = \left(\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^{n^2}\left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)^n $$
Now I want to calculate $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n$. So, real question is about other limit.
$$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^{n^2} \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\right)^n $$
As $\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^{n^2} \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n = 1$, we cannot conclude limit in easy way. ($1^{\infty}$ case.) I don't know, what I should do now.
I tried:
$$ \ln \left(\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^{n^2} \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\right) = n \left(n^2\ln(1+\frac{1}{n^2}) + n \ln(1-\frac{1}{n})\right) $$
So, now problematic is limit:
$$ \lim_{n \to \infty} n \left(n^2\ln(1+\frac{1}{n^2}) + n \ln(1-\frac{1}{n})\right) $$
It's not better. How should I calculate this limit?