This will be one big question. Basically, I had a lecturer who, to put it mildly, was not able to explain anything well. I am preparing for the exam now. One sample exam question is the following:
Given the transition density function of a standard Wiener process:
$$f_{1\mid1} (x_2,t_2\mid x_1,t_1) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi (t_2 - t_1)} } \exp\left( -\frac{(x_2-x_1)^2}{2(t_2-t_1)}\right)$$
One has to show that the above conforms to the Lindberg condition:
$$\lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{1}{\Delta t} \int_{|x_2-x_1|>\epsilon} f_{1\mid1} (x_2,t+\Delta t \mid x_1,t) dx_2 =0 \ \ \ \forall \epsilon >0 \ \text{uniformly in} \ x_1,t,\Delta t$$
I was actually admitted for the course even though I have no formal background in maths. So I shall highlight the areas below which are problematic for me:
- I know from some analysis reading that I have made, that $\epsilon$ is some small positive value, by convention. So I am really not sure why the question highlights "$\forall \epsilon > 0$". As this is true by convention.
- I have never seen an integral with such a bound before. I, of course, understand what it means. We want to integrate only when the absolute difference is larger than some small positive value. But how that would translate into actually evaluating the integral, I have no clue. (Also remembering that $\epsilon$ is arbitrary).
- I do not understand what the "uniformly in ..." part means.
- To show that the expression evaluates to zero when we take the limit for change in $t$ to go to zero, do we need that the expression in the integral evaluates to $0$? I cannot see what other case there is that would ensure that as $1/\Delta t$ as $\Delta t \rightarrow 0$ becomes infinity.
So with all of my constrained knowledge:
$$f_{1\mid1} (x_2,t_1 + \Delta t_1\mid x_1,t_1) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi (\Delta t_1)} } \exp\left( -\frac{(x_2-x_1)^2}{(\Delta t_1)^2}\right)$$
$$\lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{1}{\Delta t} \int_{|x_2-x_1|>\epsilon} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi (\Delta t_1)} } \exp\left( -\frac{(x_2-x_1)^2}{(\Delta t_1)^2}\right) dx_2$$
$$\lim_{\Delta t \to 0} \frac{1}{\Delta t^{3/2}\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{|x_2-x_1|>\epsilon} \exp\left( -\frac{(x_2-x_1)^2}{(\Delta t_1)^2}\right) dx_2$$
And that's it.. I should probably mention that I have some elementary understanding of what a Markov process is, what transition density is and that this requirement is for the continuity of the process. Also that if we integrate w.r.t. to $x_2$ in this case then we essentially get rid of that variable.
It is true that the $(\Delta t)^{-3/2} \to \infty$ as $\Delta t \to 0$ but the product $(\Delta t)^{-3/2} e^{-(x_2-x_1)^2 \over 2 \Delta t } \to 0$ as $\Delta t \to 0$.
So I think the questions you are left with are: can you take the limit inside the integral and is the convergence uniform?
– shilov Apr 09 '16 at 15:26