Problem: $$\lim_{n\to +\infty} n\left(\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n^2+k^2}\right)=$$ Source: AP Calculus BC
This looks like the definition of a definite integral to me, so I compared it to that equation. $$\int_a^b\!f(x)\,\mathrm{d}x=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(x_i)\Delta x$$ where $\Delta x=\frac{b-a}{n}$.
However, I am now stuck because $\Delta x$ has $n$ in the denominator whereas the problem has $n$ in the numerator.
Is my approach incorrect or did I apply the definition incorrectly? How do I find the function that is being integrated and $\Delta x$?
Thank you in advance!