I am looking for an alternative (possibly simpler) proof of the following fact, that has some relevance in finding the eigenfunctions for the laplacian operator.
For any $\lambda\in\mathbb{R}^+$, $\lambda\geq 1$, all the solutions of $$ \cot(x) + \lambda x = 0$$ belong to $\mathbb{R}$.
My proof goes as follows: we just have to prove that all the roots of $f(x)=\cot(x)+\lambda x$ are real. If we assume the opposite, then $f'(x)=\lambda-\frac{1}{\sin^2(x)}$ must have some complex root by the Gauss-Lucas theorem. That is the same as stating that for some $z\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\mathbb{R}$ we have $\sin(z)=\pm\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda}}$, or, by setting $z=\sigma+it$, $$ e^{i\sigma-t}-e^{-i\sigma+t} = \pm\frac{2i}{\sqrt{\lambda}}. $$ However, if we set $w=e^{iz}$, the equation $w-\frac{1}{w}=\frac{2i}{\sqrt{\lambda}}$ is solved only by $$ w = \frac{i\pm\sqrt{\lambda-1}}{\sqrt{\lambda}} $$ that is a number on the unit circle. That leads to $z\in\mathbb{R}$, i.e. $t=0$.
Extra question. What can we say about the distribution of the roots if $\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$ but $\lambda < 1$?