I have a data set that I have used to calculate the coefficients for a linear regression. The data set is of the form $\lbrace x_i,y_i\rbrace_{i=1}^{n} $
Let $$Y = \alpha + \beta X + Z$$ where $\text{corr}(X,Z) = 0$ and $Z \sim N(0,\sigma_Z^2)$, with constant $\sigma_Z^2$
To calculate $\alpha$ and $\beta$, I had to assume $Z$ is zero. I then could find them by
$$\beta = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \bar{x})(y_i - \bar{y})}{\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \bar{x})^2}$$ and assuming $Z=0$, then $$\alpha = \bar{y}-\beta \bar{x}$$I am fairly certain this assumption is correct since the numbers I got match the rest of the problem. However, I don't understand why I can assume this.
Why can I assume $Z=0$?