Can it be generalized for other powers ? Wolfram seems to say it is true for k below 20000.
I stumbled upon it randomly when trying to approximate $\sum_{n=1}^{n=+\infty} \frac{1}{n^4}$.
My reasoning was :
$$\left(\sum_{n=k}^{n=+\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}\right)^2=\sum_{n=k}^{n=+\infty} \frac{1}{n^4} + (\text{double products}) \geq\sum_{n=k}^{n=+\infty} \frac{1}{n^4}$$
So
$$\sum_{n=1}^{n=+\infty} \frac{1}{n^4} \leq \sum_{n=1}^{n=k-1} \frac{1}{n^4}+\left(\sum_{n=k}^{n=+\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}\right)^2 \leq \left(\sum_{n=1}^{n=k-1} \frac{1}{n^4}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{k-\frac{1}{2}}\right)^2$$
where the last inequality comes from An inequality: $1+\frac1{2^2}+\frac1{3^2}+\dotsb+\frac1{n^2}\lt\frac53$.
Then I noticed that, perhaps, I could raise the last term to the power of 3 instead of just 2, making the inequality stronger.