I'm reading "Principles of algebraic geometry" by Griffiths and Harris.
While reading the first chapter, I keep running into the same problem, which I'll illustrate using some examples:
Proven: "On a real $C^\infty$ manifold $H_{DR}^*(M)\cong H_{sing}^*(M,\mathbb{R})$".
Used: "Using the de Rham isomorphism $H_{DR}^*(M)\cong H_{sing}^*(M,\mathbb{C})$"
Proven: "$H^*(K,\mathbb{Z})\cong \check H^*(M,\mathbb{Z})$"
Used: "$H^*(K,\mathbb{R})\cong \check H^*(M,\mathbb{R})$"
Proven: "$H_k(M,\mathbb{Z})\times H_{n-k}(M,\mathbb{Z})\to \mathbb{Z}$ is unimodular"
Used: $H_k(M\mathbb{Q})\cong H^{n-k}(M,\mathbb{Q})$
I don't understand this. I have two questions about this:
- Why does this reasoning make sense? Why can be prove the statement for say $Z$, and use it with $\mathbb{Q}$
- Why does this way of working make sense? Why prove something for $\mathbb{Z}$ in the first place, if you are only going to use it applied to $\mathbb{Q}$