A while ago someone asked this question. I really like what the accepted answer is trying to do. But, I am having trouble figuring out his justification for the first line in the proof: $$\bigcup_{x \in F} B\left(x+ \frac{1}{2} \right) = F+B \left(0,\frac{1}{2} \right)$$
If someone could elaborate, I would really appreciate it.