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I am reading a paper and confront the following small trick:

$\text {log}\ \ a^{-1} \geq 1-a$, where $0\leq a \leq1$. By the concavity of $\text{log}(\cdot)$.

From the formula:

$f(\alpha x_1+(1-\alpha)x_2)\geq \alpha f(x_1)+(1-\alpha)f(x_2)$

I have no idea how to understand that trick.

sleeve chen
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    Concavity means that the graph lies below the tangents to the graph. So $\log a = \log (1 - (1-a)) \leqslant \log 1 - (1-a)\cdot \log' (1) = 0 - (1-a)$. – Daniel Fischer Apr 25 '16 at 20:41

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