I am reading a paper and confront the following small trick:
$\text {log}\ \ a^{-1} \geq 1-a$, where $0\leq a \leq1$. By the concavity of $\text{log}(\cdot)$.
From the formula:
$f(\alpha x_1+(1-\alpha)x_2)\geq \alpha f(x_1)+(1-\alpha)f(x_2)$
I have no idea how to understand that trick.