Suppose I wish to maximize the function $f(x,y)$ subject to the equality constraint $g(x,y)=c$ as well as the non-negativity constraints $x\geq0$, $y\geq0$.
If I first solve it ignoring the non-negativity constraints and find that $x<0$ and $y>0$ is it valid to say that the optimum value of $x=0$?
The reason I ask is that it seems that a negative value for $x$ suggests that you would want the lowest value of $x$ possible. However, in the textbooks I have referred to the only way they suggest to deal with such problems is to use the Karush-Kuhn-Tucker conditions so I wanted to know whether my reasoning is valid or flawed.