Show that if $\widetilde{H}^n(X;\mathbb{Q})$ and $\widetilde{H}^n(X;\mathbb{Z_p})$ are zero for all $n$ and all primes $p$, then $\widetilde{H}_n(X;\mathbb{Z})$ is zero for all $ n $.
My Try:
So I have the following corollary and wanted to use it here.
Corollary: $\widetilde{H}_n(X;\mathbb{Z})=0$ iff $\widetilde{H}_n(X;\mathbb{Q})=0$ and $\widetilde{H}_n(X;\mathbb{Z_p})=0$ for all n and all primes p.
So now I wanted to show that
If $\widetilde{H}^n(X;\mathbb{Q})=0$ for all $n$ then $\widetilde{H}_n(X;\mathbb{Q})=0$ for all $n$ and
If $\widetilde{H}^n(X;\mathbb{Z_p})=0$ for all $n$ and all prime $p$ then $\widetilde{H}_n(X;\mathbb{Z_p})=0$ for all $n$ and all prime $p$.
So suppose $\widetilde{H}^n(X;\mathbb{Q})=0$ for all $n$. Then $\ker \delta^n=$Im $ \delta^{n-1}$. Here $\delta ^{n-1}=\partial_n^*$ where $\partial_n $ is the map from $C_n(X)$ to $C_{n-1}(X)$. So,$\ker \partial_{n+1}^*=$Im $ \partial_n^*$. After that I was stuck. Now how can I show that $\ker \partial_n=$Im $ \partial_{n+1}$?