This image was taken from this youtube video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OLqdJMjzib8
Since only one of them converges, how do we know in advance which formula to work with?
This image was taken from this youtube video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OLqdJMjzib8
Since only one of them converges, how do we know in advance which formula to work with?
It's know that the FPI $x^{t+1} = g(x^{t})$ where $g$ is continuously differentiable, will converge (locally) to the fixed point $r = g(r)$, iff $\ |g'(r)| < 1$.
In your case, the first FPI has $g(x)=1 + \frac{1}{x} \rightarrow g'(x) = \frac{-1}{x^2}$, and evaluating it at $r=1.6\ldots$ gives $|g'(r)|<1$. In the second case $g(x)=\frac{1}{x-1} \rightarrow g'(x)=\frac{-1}{(x-1)^2}$ and $|g'(r)| = \left|\frac{-1}{0.6\ldots^2}\right|>1$.
It's all about contracting intervals.
If the image of an interval is a subinterval, you are sure to stay confined in the subinterval. If in addition the subinterval shrinks are every iteration by a factor smaller than one, you are sure to converge.
For instance, $f(x)=1+\dfrac1x$ maps $[1,2]$ to $[\dfrac32,2]$, then $[\dfrac32,2]$ to $[\dfrac32,\dfrac53]$, and so on. You can check that the interval size is more than halved every time, so that starting from any value in $[1,2]$ you will converge.
Close to the solution we have $$f(\phi+\epsilon)=1+\dfrac1{\phi+\epsilon}\approx1+\dfrac1\phi(1-\dfrac\epsilon\phi)=\phi-\dfrac\epsilon{\phi^2},$$ which shows that the contraction ratio is about $\phi^2$.
On the opposite, with $f(x)=\dfrac1{x-1}$, the size of the intervals goes growing.
$$f(\phi+\epsilon)=\frac1{\phi+\epsilon-1}\approx\frac1{\phi-1}(1-\frac\epsilon{\phi-1})=\phi-\frac\epsilon{(\phi-1)^2}$$ and there is an expansion ratio equal to $\dfrac1{(\phi-1)^2}=\phi^2$, and convergence isn't possible.
As you see, a key factor is the slope of the curve at the solution point, as $$f(\phi+\epsilon)\approx f(\phi)+f'(\phi)\epsilon=\phi+f'(\phi)\epsilon.$$