I am trying to prove this and found this may be not true in general.Does anyone have any ideas about the counterexample for this statement?
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$A=\begin{pmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{pmatrix}$
Rene Schipperus
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Thank you so much.Was preparing for the exam,lol – wenyuan wang May 02 '16 at 02:28
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Good luck to you. – Rene Schipperus May 02 '16 at 02:31