Explain why $\displaystyle \int_{C_1(0)} f(z) dz =0$ for the function $\dfrac{z^2}{z-3}$. In case there's some confusion with the notation, $C_1(0)=$ circle of radius $1$ centered at $0$ in $\mathbb{C}$.
We were given several theorems in class for this, but here's one that I think might be applicable:
Assume $f(z)$ analytic in domain $\Omega$ and $\Gamma \subset \Omega$ a closed Jordan curve whose interior is contained in $\Omega$ so that $f(z)$ is analytic on and inside $\Gamma$. Then $$\int_{\Gamma} f(z) dz = 0.$$
since $\Gamma=C_1(0)$ is a Jordan curve sitting inside the disk $\Omega=D_2(0)$. The function $f(z)$ has discontinuity at the point $z=3$, but that's okay since $\left|3-0 \right|^2=9 > 4$, so $3 \not\in D_2(0)$. Thus it is left to show that $f(z)$ is analytic on the disk. Is everything correct so far? Am I using the right theorem here?
Now I want to prove that $\dfrac{z^2}{z-3}$ is analytic, but I'm having trouble breaking it into real and complex parts so that I can check that the first order partial derivatives are continuous and that the Cauchy Riemann equations are satisfied. After expanding the $z^2$ term it just gets ugly. Assuming $z=x+iy$, I get $$\frac{x^2-y^2+i(2xy)}{(x+iy)-3}.$$ How do I show that this function is analytic?