I am just wondering, given the definition of continuous maps as follows,
A functionn $f:X \to Y$ is continuous if for every open subset $U $ of $Y$ the preimage $f^{-1}U$ is open in $X$.
I guess mathematically, this doesn't necessarily mean that "an open subset of $X$ is mapped to an open subset in $Y$"?
It's only that the open subset of $Y$ must originate from an open subset in $X$, but not necessarily that every open $V$ of $X$ will be mapped to some open $U$ of $Y$.
Is this understanding correct?