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I'm having trouble proving that if $X$ is a topological space, then $C(X)$ (defined as $X \times [0,1] /\sim$ where $(x_1,t_1)\sim (x_2,t_2)$ iff they are equal or $t_1=0=t_2$) is path-connected.

I understand the definition and I know I must take two different points in the cone and construct a function from $[0,1]$ to $C(X)$. The problem is that because $C(X)$ is a quotient, then I don't quite see how points look like and how to join them with a path.

Thank you.

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    Draw the cone. For every two points either their $x$-coordinates are the same, and then it's easy (why?) or you make a path that goes via the "top" (which is the class of $t = 0$). – Henno Brandsma May 11 '16 at 21:35
  • I think I see the problem geometrically, but I don't understand how to "connect" equivalence classes. –  May 12 '16 at 03:50

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First note that it suffices to show that there exists a point $p$ to which any point in $CX$ can be connected by a continuous path. (Make sure you understand why this is true!) In the cone, we can take this "connecting point" to be the vertex of the cone, i.e., the point $p = [x,0]$ (where $x$ is any point in $X$). Can any point in $CX$ be connected to the vertex $p$ by means of a continuous path? Definitely.

To see this, let $[x,t]$ be a point in $CX$ and consider the map $\lambda : I \rightarrow X \times I$ defined by $\lambda(s) = (x,(1-s)t)$. Since both coordinates of $\lambda$ are continuous, $\lambda$ itself is continuous (i.e., $\lambda$ is a continuous path in $X \times I$ that joins the point $(x,t)$ to the point $(x,0)$ (this is still true if $t = 0$.) Let $\pi : X \times I \rightarrow CX$ be the quotient map. Since $\pi$ is continuous, the composition $\pi \circ \lambda$ is also continuous. This composition is thus a continuous path that joins $[x,t]$ to $p = [x,0]$.

Since we've shown than an arbitrary point $[x,t]$ in $CX$ can be joined to $p$, we can conclude that $CX$ is indeed path-connected.

PeterJL
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