first and foremost please excuse my English.
given $∫_c \frac{{z}}{2z^{2}+1}dz$ where the contour is the unit circle. so c = $e^{it}$ from 0 to $2\pi$.
since the contour is the unit circle we can say that $f(z(t)) = \frac{e^{it}}{2*(e^{it})^{2}+1}$ and $z'(t) = i*e^{it}$
We know that $\int_a^{b} f(z(t))*z'(t) = \int _c f(z) dz$
so then we just substitute what we know and we get:$$ \int _0 ^{2\pi } \frac{e^{it}}{2*(e^{it})^{2}+1} * i*e^{it} dt $$
$$ i\int _0 ^{2\pi } \frac{e^{2it}}{2e^{2it}+1} dt $$
we let $ u = 2e^{2it}+1 $ and $du = 4ie^{2it}$ and we get : $$i\int _0 ^{2\pi } \frac{e^{2it}}{u} \frac{du}{4ie^{2it}}$$ $$ \frac{1}{4}\int _0 ^{2\pi } \frac{1}{u}du $$
we solve and see that:
$$ i\int _0 ^{2\pi } \frac{e^{2it}}{2e^{2it}+1} dt = \frac{1}{4}(log (1+2e^{4\pi i})-log(1+2e^{0 i})) = 0 $$
is this correct? this was a problem on my final and when I computed this contour integral on wolfram alpha I got $\pi$i?
any explanation would by much appreciate it. I understand I could have done this problem with Cauchy's Integral Formula. Our class did not get up to residue calculus since this is an undergraduate course. Many thanks in advance.