If $\operatorname{cis}(2\pi) = \operatorname{cis}(4\pi)$, then don't we have $$\big(\operatorname{cis}(2\pi)\big)^{1/5} = \big(\operatorname{cis}(4\pi)\big)^{1/5}?$$
This isn't yielding the same answer, even though I'm raising two equal complex numbers to the power $1/5$ (or for that matter any number?).