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I am trying to prove Theorem 7.13 in baby Rudin and find that my proof goes in a totally different direction than the proof in the book. I briefly sketch what I did.

Since $f_n(x)$ is continuous, then $f_n(x)$ is bounded in compact domain $K$ (theorem 4.15). Then $$M_n = \sup_{x\in E} |f_n(x)-f(x)|$$ is well defined and is non-increasing because $f_n(x)\ge f_{n+1}(x) \ge f(x)$. Moreover, $lim_{n\to \infty}M_{n} = 0$, then from Theorem 7.9, we conclude that $f_n\to f$ uniformly.

Could someone tell me whether my proof is wrong ? Or whether it is possible to prove this theorem in this way?

Theorem 7.13 Suppose $K$ is compact and
(a) $\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $K$
(b) $\{f_n\}$ converges pointwise to a continuous function on $K$
(c) $f_n(x) \ge f_{n+1}(x)$ for all $x \in K$, $n=1,2,3,\dots$ Then $f_n \to f$ uniformly on $K$.

Rudin's Proof of Theorem 7.13 Put $g_n = f_n -f$. Then $g_n$ is continuous, $g_n \to 0$ pointwise, and $g_n \ge g_{n+1}$. We have to prove that $g_n \to 0$ uniformly on $K$.

Let $\epsilon > 0$ be given. Let $K_n$ be the set of all $x \in K$ with $g_n(x) \ge \epsilon$. Since $g_n$ is continuous, $K_n$ is closed (Theorem 4.8) hence compact (Theorem 2.35). Since $g_n \ge g_{n+1}$ we have $K_{n+1} \subset K_{n}$. Fix $x \in K$. Since $g_n(x) \to 0$, we see that $x \not\in K_n$ if $n$ is sufficiently large. Thus $x \not\in \bigcap K_n$. In other words, $\bigcap K_n$ is empty.Hence $K_N$ is empty for some $N$ (Theorem 2.36). It follows that $0 \le g_n(x) < \epsilon$ for all $x \in K$ and for all $n \ge N$. This proves the theorem.

Here is also the crucial Theorem 7.9:

Theorem 7.9 Suppose $$\underset{n \to \infty}{\lim} f_n(x) = f(x) \quad (x \in E).$$

Put $$M_n = \underset{x \in E}{\sup}|f_n(x)-f(x)|.$$ Then $f_n \to f$ uniformly on $E$ if and only if $M_n \to 0$ as $n \to \infty$.

Chill2Macht
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kevin
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1 Answers1

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Your proof looks to be correct; the statement that $\underset{n \to \infty}{\lim} M_n = 0$ is entirely analogous to the statement in Rudin's proof of Theorem 7.13 that $g_n \to 0$ uniformly.

Just note that as @BigbearZzz points out, you should provide more justification for that particular claim, since it is the crux of the proof. But since it implies the claim from which Rudin's proof follows, once you justify it, you will be done.

HINT: use the uniform continuity of the $f_n$ and $f$, which follows from the compactness of $K$.

Chill2Macht
  • 20,920