I have to show that $$\displaystyle\sum\limits_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\binom{m+1}{k}\binom{m+n-k}{n-k} = \begin{cases} 1\ \text{if}\ n=0 \\ 0\ \text{if}\ n>0 \end{cases}$$
My try: I have tried to use snake oil method $$\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{m+1}{k}\binom{m+n-k}{n-k}$$ $$=\sum_m{\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{m+1}{k}\binom{m+n-k}{n-k}}x^m$$ $$={\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k \binom{m+1}{k}\sum_m\binom{m+n-k}{n-k}}x^m$$ We know that the second sum $\frac{1}{(1-x)^{1+n-k}}=\sum_m\binom{m+n-k}{n-k}x^m$ $$=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\binom{m+1}{k}\frac{1}{(1-x)^{1+n-k}}$$$$=\frac{1}{(1-x)^{1+n}}\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\binom{m+1}{k}(1+x)^k$$ How should I proceed after that?
Edit: My method might be absolutely wrong so if anyone might show me some other method I would really appreciate it