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If $f_n$ is Lebesgue integrable and $f_{n}$ converges pointwise to $f$ then is $f$ Lebesgue integrable?

I know that this is false unless $f_{n}$ converges uniformly to $f$, but is there an example that shows this?

Watson
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1 Answers1

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The sequence $f_n(x) = 1/x \cdot \chi_{[1/n,1]}\;(x)\;\;$ is in $L^1([0,1])\;$, and converges pointwise to $1/x \cdot \chi_{]0,1]}\;(x)\;\;$ which is not in $L^1([0,1])\;$ (here $\chi_A\;$ denotes the characteristic function of a measurable subset $A \subset [0,1].$)

A pointwise limit of a sequence of measurable functions is measurable. Here you can't replace "measurable" by "integrable".

Watson
  • 23,793
  • Could you remind me of what $\chi_{[1/n,1]}$ means please. I know it, but I just can't quite remember it now. – user3879021 May 22 '16 at 14:35
  • As I added : "here $\chi_A;$ denotes the characteristic function of a measurable subset $A \subset [0,1]$." – Watson May 22 '16 at 14:35