Let $x_{1},x_{2},\cdots,x_{n}$ be postive real numbers, and such $x_{1}x_{2}\cdots x_{n}=1$, Show that $$\dfrac{1}{x_{1}(x_{1}+1)}+\dfrac{1}{x_{2}(x_{2}+1)}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{x_{n}(x_{n}+1)}\ge\dfrac{n}{2}$$
I try use Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.but I don't see how to make the right estimates.If anyone has an idea how to proceed in that inequality
for $n=3$,even it is hard to prove it
$x_{1}=\dfrac{a}{b},x_{2}=\dfrac{b}{c},x_{3}=\dfrac{c}{a}$ It suceffent to prove $$\sum_{cyc}\dfrac{b^2}{a(a+b)}\ge\dfrac{3}{2}$$ Use Cauchy-Schwarz inequality we have $$\sum_{cyc}\dfrac{b^2}{a(a+b)}\sum_{cyc}a(a+b)\ge (a+b+c)^2$$ $$\Longleftrightarrow 2(a+b+c)^2\ge 3\sum_{cyc}(a^2+ab)$$ this inequality is wrong