Consider $E$ to be the set of all $(x,y) \in [0,1] \times [0,1]$ such that there exists a $p \geq 2$ prime and $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $(x,y) = (\frac{m}{p},\frac{n}{p}).$ Take $f$ to be the indicator function for the set, i.e. $f(x,y) = \mathcal{1}_{(x,y) \in E}$. I want to prove that $f$ is not Riemann integrable, but I am having issues figuring out the proper method to prove this instance. I had a suggestion that I should prove the denstiy of $E$ and $[0,1] \times [0,1] \setminus E$, but I am not sure how this would go about proving my result. Any suggestions on such a situation?
Otherwise, I have a decent sense of how to go about proving the density of $E$. Consider $(x,y) \in [0,1] \times [0,1] \setminus E$, and consider the open ball around $(x,y)$ for an arbitrary $r > 0,$ $B(r,(x,y)).$ I understand that by the density of the rationals that I could find some rational $m$ such that $|x-m| < r$ and I could potentially find some rational $n$ such that $|y-n| < r$. That being said, I am trying to figure out how to combine these two results to find a point in this open ball that is also in $E$. Any suggestions?