Let $\{f_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a family of functions from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$.
a.) $\sup\{\sum_{n}f_n(x):x\in\mathbb{R}\}\leq \sum_{n}\sup\{f_n(x):x\in\mathbb{R}\}$.
b.) $\sup\{\sum_{n}f_n(x_n):x_n\in\mathbb{R}\} = \sum_{n}\sup\{f(x_n):x_n\in\mathbb{R}\}$.
Attempted proof a.) - Since $\sum_{n}f_n(x)\leq \sum_{n}\sup\{f_n(x):x\in\mathbb{R}\}$ then $\sum_n f_n(x)$ is bounded above by $\sum_{n}\sup\{f_n(x):x\in\mathbb{R}\}$. Thus taking the supremum over all $x$ we get, $$\sup\{\sum_{n}f_n(x):x\in\mathbb{R}\}\leq \sum_{n}\sup\{f_n(x):x\in\mathbb{R}\}$$
I am not exactly sure how to proceed with b.) I am being thrown off a bit by the $f(x_n)$ it seems that we have $f_n\rightarrow f$ but I am not sure. Any suggestions is greatly appreciated.