The problem is in Marsden - Elementary Classical Analysis 2nd ed. Ch.5.
My approach was
Condition : $f_k, f(\in\mathcal C) : A\to N$, $f_k \to f \ \text{(pointwise)}$ and $A$ is compact.
Since $A$ is compact, the range of $f_k, f$ are all compact, so bounded.
Since $f_k, f\in\mathcal C_b$, if $\|f_k-f\|\to 0$ in $\mathcal C_b$ then $f_k\to f \ \text {(uniformly)}$.
when the norm of $\mathcal C_b$ is defined by $\|f\|=\sup\{\|f(x)\||x\in A\}$.
I got stucked in 3, showing $\|f_k-f\|\to 0$. I don't even know the proposition is true. Can anyone give me some hint to solve this or a counterexample for this?