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Inside a rhombus E with sides 10 unit and one interior angle less than 90 degree , there are 2 parallel ( with E ) parallelograms A and B , both can move freely and uniformly inside E but must keep parallel with E in moving . A is with base 8 unit and adjacent side 6 unit ; while B is with base 5 unit and adjacent side 9 unit . If a point is chosen randomly in E , find the probability that the point lies inside A and B at the same time .

mrwong
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    make a picture? – D A Jun 10 '16 at 03:07
  • @D Adams . It is difficult for me to do so ! – mrwong Jun 10 '16 at 10:28
  • @mrwong: It's difficult for us to understand the question without one. – joriki Jun 10 '16 at 13:13
  • @joriki . Welcome to join the discussion of this type of problem in www.mathisfunforum.com if you are interested ! – mrwong Jun 17 '16 at 02:54
  • These parallelograms must have parallel all sides to the sides of the rhombus? In this case it is easy to imagine the situation .. just to have a blank sheet of paper and a pencil :) – Widawensen Jul 13 '16 at 09:20
  • @Widawensen : Yes , welcome to give your opinion ! – mrwong Jul 13 '16 at 09:27
  • @mrwong Unfortunately I'm not an expert in probability ( lately I'm only "expert" in rotation matrices :) but with great interest I would look at the solutions... as I've said they might have even a practical importance for some applications.. – Widawensen Jul 13 '16 at 09:39
  • @mnwong I'm thinking still about your phrase "both can move freely and uniformly", I suppose you mean that probability that parallelogram is at the moment in its space of available positions is uniform, but interesting problem would be if really it could start from selected position and move in one direction and after touching opposite side move in other and so on. The second parallelogram the same starting from the position at the other direction. Does the way of moving changing something here ? Probably so, because some areas would be meet more often than others. – Widawensen Jul 13 '16 at 13:56
  • @Widawensen : In fact the word " move" is not essential . It is just used to describe that the parallelograms can appear at any possible
    positions inside the rhombus with equal chance , but the parallelograms and the rhombus must be in parallel positions with fixed corresponding sides . You are right , the 2 parallelograms will meet more often at certain positions especially at the centre of the rhombus , since they are blocked by the sides of the rhombus .
    – mrwong Jul 14 '16 at 03:37

2 Answers2

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We may assume that everything happens in the unit square $[0,1]^2$.

Begin with the following one-dimensional problem: We have a movable subinterval $J\subset[0,1]$ leaving free space of length $0<\ell\leq{1\over2}$, whose position is uniformly distributed within the given limits. Denote by $p(x)$ the probability that the point $x\in[0,1]$ is covered by $J$. Then $p(1-x)=p(x)$, by symmetry. For $0\leq x\leq{1\over2}$ it is easy to see that $$p(x)=\cases{{\displaystyle{x\over\mathstrut \ell}}\qquad&$(0\leq x\leq \ell)\>,$\cr 1&$\bigl(\ell\leq x\leq{1\over2}\bigr)\>.$\cr}$$ If we now have two such intervals $J_1$, $J_2$ such that $\ell_1<\ell_2\leq{1\over2}$, distributed independently, then the probability $q(x)$ that $x$ is covered by both intervals computes to $$q(x)=\cases{{\displaystyle{x^2\over\mathstrut\ell_1\ell_2}}\qquad&$(0\leq x\leq \ell_1)\>,$\cr {\displaystyle{\mathstrut x\over\mathstrut\ell_2}}\qquad&$(\ell_1\leq x\leq \ell_2)\>,$\cr 1&$\bigl(\ell_2\leq x\leq{1\over2}\bigr)\>.$\cr}$$ In the case at hand we have $\ell_1={1\over5}$, $\ell_2={1\over2}$ for the $x$-direction. If we now assume that $x$ is uniformly distributed in $[0,1]$ as well the overall probability $P_x$ that the random point $x$ is covered by both intervals becomes $$P_x=2\int_0^{1/2}p(x)\>dx=2\int_0^{1/5}10x^2\>dx+2\int_{1/5}^{1/2}2x\>dx={71\over150}\ .$$ Similarly for the $y$-direction: Here $\ell_1={1\over10}$, $\ell_2={2\over5}$. The overall probability $P_y$ that a random point $y$ is covered by both intervals becomes $$P_y=2\int_0^{1/10}25x^2\>dx+2\int_{1/10}^{2/5}{5x\over2}\>dx+2\int_{2/5}^{1/2}1\>dx={71\over120}\ .$$ The probability $P$ that a uniformly distributed random point $(x,y)\in[0,1]^2$ is covered by both random rectangles at the same time is therefore given by $$P=P_x\cdot P_y={5041\over18\,000}\doteq0.280056\ ,$$ as indicated by the OP in a comment (now deleted).

  • Thanks @Christian Blatter , Please also refer to my another question " geometric probability ---rectangles " . I believe you can also solve it in a similar way . – mrwong Jun 11 '16 at 02:51
  • There is a thread concerning this type of problem in www.mathisfunforum.com . Perhaps you will be interested ! – mrwong Jun 12 '16 at 04:13
  • You may be interested about the formula I used
    to find the answer of this question , it can be
    found in a thread in www.mathisfunforum.com .
    – mrwong Jun 23 '16 at 04:16
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We can either impose oblique $(x,y)$ coordinates on the plane of the three paralellograms, with the $x$- and $y$-axes parallel to the sides of all the parallelograms, or we can transform the plane linearly (preserving relative areas) so that the rhombus becomes a square. Either way, it is convenient to place the axes so that the bottom and left sides of the rhombus lie along the $x$- and $y$-axes, respectively.

Taking the random variables $X_A,Y_A$ as the coordinates of the lower left corner of parallelogram $A$, $X_B,Y_B$ as the coordinates of the lower left corner of parallelogram $B$, and $X_P,Y_P$ as the coordinates of a random point $P$ within the rhombus, let the variables have pairwise independent distributions \begin{align} X_A &\sim U(0,2) \\ Y_A &\sim U(0,4) \\ X_B &\sim U(0,5) \\ Y_B &\sim U(0,1) \\ X_P &\sim U(0,10) \\ Y_P &\sim U(0,10) \\ \end{align} where $U(a,b)$ is the uniform distribution on the interval $[a,b]$.

Now, $P$ is (strictly) inside $A \cap B$ if and only if $$\min\{X_A,X_B\} < X_P < \max\{X_A+8,X_B+5\} \tag Q$$ and $$\min\{Y_A,Y_B\} < Y_P < \max\{Y_A+6,Y_B+1\}. \tag R$$ (If a point on the boundary of $A \cap B$ counts as "inside both $A$ and $B$" then change $<$ to $\leq$ in the previous statement.)

Since the variables are pairwise independent, so are the events $Q$ and $R$ described by equations $(Q)$ and $(R)$, respectively, and the answer to the question, $P(Q \cap R)$, obeys the equation $$ P(Q \cap R) = P(Q) P(R).$$ So consider equation $Q$. For given values $X_A = x_A$ and $X_B = x_B$, let $u = \min\{X_A,X_B\}$ and $v = \max\{X_A+8,X_B+5\}$; then $$P(Q \mid X_A = x_A, X_B = x_B) = P(u < X_P < v) = \frac{1}{10}(v - u)$$ (since $0 \leq u \leq v \leq 10$). So the unconditional probability $P(Q)$ is just $frac{1}{10}$ of the mean size of the interval $[\min\{X_A,X_B\},\max\{X_A+8,X_B+5\}]$. I figure the mean of $\max\{X_A+8,X_B+5\} - \min\{X_A,X_B\}$ is $\frac{71}{15}$, so $P(Q) = \frac{71}{150}$, and by similar reasoning $P(R) = \frac{71}{120}$, so I find that $$ P(Q \cap R) = \left(\frac{71}{150}\right) \left(\frac{71}{120}\right) = 5041/18000 \approx 0.2800555\ldots.$$

David K
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  • Thanks @David K ,Please also refer to my another question " geometric probability ---rectangles " . I believe you can also solve it in a similar way . – mrwong Jun 11 '16 at 02:57
  • Both your answer and Christian Blatter 's answer are correct , but why I can only choose one ? – mrwong Jun 11 '16 at 03:03
  • There is a thread concerning this type of problem in www.mathisfunforum.com . Perhaps you will be interested ! – mrwong Jun 12 '16 at 04:13
  • You may be interested about the formula I used
    to find the answer of this question , it can be
    found in a thread in www.mathisfunforum.com .
    – mrwong Jun 23 '16 at 04:15