- $ \neg p\rightarrow\neg q$ is true
- $\neg q\rightarrow\neg p$ is true
- $p\rightarrow \neg p∨q$ is true
Now which one is the correct? and explain this.Thanks!
Now which one is the correct? and explain this.Thanks!
NOTE: $\sim p$ means "not p", $\sim q$ means "not q".
For example, if $p$ is false and $q$ is true, then we know the original is true because it has a false hypothesis, but the inverse is false because it has a true hypothesis, but a false conclusion.
Therefore, we can not conclude this.
Thus, let's assume $p$.
We know that $p \implies q$, so with $p$, we can conclude $q$.
Now, since we have $q$, we also have $v \vee q$, where $v$ can be absolutely anything, since anything in a conjunction with a true statement is true.
Therefore, we can make $v=\sim p$ to conclude that $\sim p \vee q$.
Thus, we have successfully proven $\sim p \vee q$ given $p$, so we can conclude $p \implies (\sim p \vee q)$.
If you want to check my reasoning, you can do what @ncmathsadist did and make a truth table for all of these statements.