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I am reading a book about Boltzmann equation, here is a quotation:

For a gas of $N$ particles, the number of particles having velocities in the $x$ direction between $c_x$ and $c_x + \mathrm dc_x$ is $Nf(c_x)\mathrm dc_x$. The function $f(c_x)$ is the fraction of the particles having velocities in the interval $c_x$ and $c_x + \mathrm dc_x$; in the x-direction.

I am really confused, why the number of particles having velocities in $c_x$ and $c_x+\mathrm dc_x$ is given by $Nf(c_x)\mathrm dc_x$? why do we multiply by $\mathrm dc_x$?

Can you explain please?

Thank you

1 Answers1

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This is roughly a first order approximation for the distribution of velocities. Strictly speaking, the fraction of particles with velocities in the interval is $\int_{c_x}^{c_x+dc_x}f(c)dc$. But if $dc_x$ is small and $f$ is roughly continuous, then one can assume that $f$ is constant on the interval to obtain $$\int_{c_x}^{c_x+dc_x}f(c)dc\approx\int_{c_x}^{c_x+dc_x}f(c_x)dc=f(c_x)dc_x.$$ Then multiply by $N$ to turn this fraction into a quantity of particles.

If this seems imprecise, it's because you're reading a book about physics and not math!

Funktorality
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